What did people make of Jameson’s claim, quoted on 53 of Anderson, that the only way to make ‘essential mystery of the cultural past’ present and urgent was to place them within a single narrative? Is the schizophrenic loss of the past a consequence of the loss of meta-narratives (something I thought Jameson claimed was itself a metanarrative) or visa versa?

I find Jameson's discussion of schizophrenia very interesting. He highlights the notions of Lacan on his emphasis of the relationship of schizophrenia as one of postmodernism's privative features. Lacan's view is that meaning is not based on a "one-to-one relationship between signifier and signified," but rather, "is generated by the movement from signifier to signifier" (26). It is when this breaks down that schizophrenia arises, however, Jameson brings up examples of how this disjointedness can function as the prime aesthetic aspect of certain works.